Timeline for Landau's ambiguous statement about the existence of inertial frames
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 28, 2013 at 1:25 | comment | added | user4552 | This is clear as mud to me. MBN's comment seems to show that this is in the context of Galilean relativity. In Galilean relativity there is no empirically testable homogeneity of time. Actually, GR doesn't even have a concept of homogeneity of time. Maybe he means that the laws of physics are position-invariant? That would make a lot more sense. | |
| Jul 12, 2011 at 11:22 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
| Jul 2, 2011 at 14:23 | answer | added | Helder Velez | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jul 1, 2011 at 18:25 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackPhysics/status/86863064070234112 | ||
| Jul 1, 2011 at 9:47 | history | edited | user4235 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 196 characters in body
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| Jun 30, 2011 at 21:14 | answer | added | Physicsworks | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jun 30, 2011 at 19:17 | comment | added | MBN | It is in "Mechanics" on page five, of the edition I looked at, in the part about Galileo's principle of relativity. | |
| Jun 30, 2011 at 18:58 | comment | added | Ted Bunn | Can you give an exact citation? Is it in Classical Mechanics? Where exactly? Context would help a lot in evaluating this statement. | |
| Jun 30, 2011 at 17:56 | history | asked | user4235 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |