Timeline for Why fermions have a first order (Dirac) equation and bosons a second order one?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 18, 2014 at 4:11 | history | bounty ended | Costantino | ||
| May 16, 2014 at 21:46 | comment | added | TwoBs | It is just the decomposition in irreducible representations of the product of two Lorentz representations, that is $\mathbf{r_1}\otimes\mathbf{r_2}=\oplus_j \mathbf{r_j}$. The "contains" means that it appears in such a decomposition. Schematically I was looking at how $\partial\otimes\mathbf{r}$ decomposes and see whether a linear equation for a given spin was possible | |
| May 16, 2014 at 15:41 | comment | added | Costantino | I would love to say that I have understood your answer fully. Could you just expand it a little bit? Like when you say "contains", what you mean? | |
| S May 15, 2014 at 22:04 | history | suggested | Flint72 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
fixed math mode typo
|
| May 15, 2014 at 21:51 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S May 15, 2014 at 22:04 | |||||
| May 15, 2014 at 21:26 | history | edited | TwoBs | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 356 characters in body
|
| May 15, 2014 at 21:15 | history | answered | TwoBs | CC BY-SA 3.0 |