Timeline for Clebsch-Gordan Coefficients for two spin-1 particles - Why is there a ∣0⟩∣0⟩ ket?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 3, 2014 at 23:02 | vote | accept | user44840 | ||
| May 13, 2014 at 5:26 | comment | added | rob♦ | That's it exactly. | |
| May 13, 2014 at 5:20 | comment | added | BMS | Is the message here that the $\vert j=0, m=0 \rangle$ state needs to be orthogonal to $\vert 1, 0 \rangle$ and $\vert 2, 0 \rangle$? | |
| May 13, 2014 at 5:05 | history | answered | rob♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |