Skip to main content
5 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jul 13, 2019 at 7:38 comment added Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir Saying "it's defined that way" is atrocious -- even if you adopt it as your definition, it just opens the question of "why is this definition useful?", and the fundamental reason has to do with symmetry principles and/or Noether.
Sep 27, 2017 at 18:32 comment added Arturo don Juan No, KE is not defined as $\frac{1}{2}mv^2$. It's a consequence of Newton's 2nd law, which is a consequence of the fact that $x$ and $\dot{x}$ are enough to specify the state of a system uniquely.
Oct 19, 2015 at 6:00 comment added Milind R Only this really answered the question.
Apr 22, 2014 at 20:27 history edited user44558 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 1642 characters in body
Apr 22, 2014 at 13:01 history answered user44558 CC BY-SA 3.0