5 edited tags | link edited Apr 7 '14 at 8:14 Qmechanic♦ 114k1313 gold badges225225 silver badges13521352 bronze badges 4 added 332 characters in body edited Apr 7 '14 at 6:15 user119264 33122 silver badges1010 bronze badges Does the solution of the Schrodinger equation always have to be normalizable? By normalizable I mean, given a wavefunction $$\psi(x)$$ $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx<\infty \qquad \text{or}\qquad \int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$ What would be the physical implications if one (or both) of those integrals diverges. From the viewpoint that the Copenhagen interpretation is one of the most popular and the wave function is interpretated as a probability distribution in this case; will the wavefunction diverging be valid for any other interpretation of quantum mechanics. Does anyone know any wavefunctions which are not normalizable? What if there was a singularity at 0 that made it diverge at all times. For instance $$\int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx \to\infty\quad \text{but}\quad \int_{a}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$ where $$a>0.$$ Would the second integral count as a valid pdf? Does the solution of the Schrodinger equation always have to be normalizable? By normalizable I mean, given a wavefunction $$\psi(x)$$ $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx<\infty \qquad \text{or}\qquad \int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$ What would be the physical implications if one (or both) of those integrals diverges. From the viewpoint that the Copenhagen interpretation is one of the most popular and the wave function is interpretated as a probability distribution in this case; will the wavefunction diverging be valid for any other interpretation of quantum mechanics. Does anyone know any wavefunctions which are not normalizable? Does the solution of the Schrodinger equation always have to be normalizable? By normalizable I mean, given a wavefunction $$\psi(x)$$ $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx<\infty \qquad \text{or}\qquad \int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$ What would be the physical implications if one (or both) of those integrals diverges. From the viewpoint that the Copenhagen interpretation is one of the most popular and the wave function is interpretated as a probability distribution in this case; will the wavefunction diverging be valid for any other interpretation of quantum mechanics. Does anyone know any wavefunctions which are not normalizable? What if there was a singularity at 0 that made it diverge at all times. For instance $$\int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx \to\infty\quad \text{but}\quad \int_{a}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$ where $$a>0.$$ Would the second integral count as a valid pdf? 3 added 331 characters in body edited Apr 7 '14 at 5:32 user119264 33122 silver badges1010 bronze badges Does the solution of the Schrodinger equation always have to be normalizable? By normalizable I mean, given a wavefunction $$\psi(x)$$ $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx<\infty \qquad \text{or}\qquad \int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$ What would be the physical implications if one (or both) of those integrals diverges. DoesFrom the viewpoint that the Copenhagen interpretation is one of the most popular and the wave function is interpretated as a probability distribution in this case; will the wavefunction diverging be valid for any other interpretation of quantum mechanics. Does anyone know any wavefunctions which are not normalizable? Does the solution of the Schrodinger equation always have to be normalizable? By normalizable I mean, given a wavefunction $$\psi(x)$$ $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx<\infty \qquad \text{or}\qquad \int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$ What would be the physical implications if one (or both) of those integrals diverges. Does anyone know any wavefunctions which are not normalizable? Does the solution of the Schrodinger equation always have to be normalizable? By normalizable I mean, given a wavefunction $$\psi(x)$$ $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx<\infty \qquad \text{or}\qquad \int_{0}^{\infty}|\psi(x)|^2 dx <\infty$$ What would be the physical implications if one (or both) of those integrals diverges. From the viewpoint that the Copenhagen interpretation is one of the most popular and the wave function is interpretated as a probability distribution in this case; will the wavefunction diverging be valid for any other interpretation of quantum mechanics. Does anyone know any wavefunctions which are not normalizable? 2 edited title | link edited Apr 7 '14 at 5:19 user119264 33122 silver badges1010 bronze badges 1 asked Apr 7 '14 at 5:11 user119264 33122 silver badges1010 bronze badges