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Mar 18, 2014 at 19:47 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
added 42 characters in body; edited tags
Mar 18, 2014 at 18:58 history edited BMS
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Mar 18, 2014 at 18:49 vote accept DWade64
Mar 18, 2014 at 18:42 answer added BMS timeline score: 7
Mar 18, 2014 at 18:39 answer added Elvex timeline score: 3
Mar 18, 2014 at 18:36 comment added DumpsterDoofus @DWade64: As V. Moretti says, for the first part of your question, there is no difference between $\frac{\hbar}{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}$ and $-i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial x}$.
Mar 18, 2014 at 18:35 comment added Valter Moretti Notice that $1/i= -i$, so...
Mar 18, 2014 at 18:34 history asked DWade64 CC BY-SA 3.0