To get a better intuition of the schroedinger equation I am trying to work with it in the Madelung equation form instead. If I am reading them correctly, these are the Madelung equations for a 1D particle (interpret $\psi=r\cdot e^{iS}$): \begin{equation} \begin{aligned} \frac{\partial r}{\partial t}&=-\frac{1}{2m}\left(r\frac{\partial^2 S}{\partial x^2}+2\frac{\partial r}{\partial x}\cdot\frac {\partial S}{\partial x}\right)\\ \frac{\partial S}{\partial t}&=-\frac {1 }{2m}\left(\left|\frac{\partial S}{\partial x}\right|^2+V-\hbar^2\frac{\partial^2 r}{\partial x^2}\right) \end{aligned} \end{equation}
Here's why it confuses me: Define $k=\frac {\partial S}{\partial x}$. Then for a standing wave (stationary wave for a free particle), we have $\frac {\partial S}{\partial t}=-\frac{k^2}{2m}$.
This would suggest a wave function of $\Psi(x,t)=e^{i(kx-\frac{k^2}{2m}t)}$. But instead the formula for a standing wave given in Griffith's Intro to QM is: $\Psi(x,t)=e^{i(kx-\frac{\hbar k^2}{2m}t)}$. What explains the missing $\hbar$?
Note: I got the Madelung's equations from this SE question.