From Goldstein:
... The mechanics of the particle is contained in Newton's second law of motion, which states that there exist frames of reference in which the motion of the particle is described by the differential equation $$\mathbf{F} = \frac{d\mathbf{p}}{dt} \equiv \dot{\mathbf{p}},$$ or $$\mathbf{F} = \frac{d}{dt}\left(m\mathbf{v}\right).$$ In most instances, the mass of the particle is constant and [the last equation] reduces to $$\mathbf{F} = m\frac{d\mathbf{v}}{dt} = m\mathbf{a}\textrm{...}$$
What Goldstein is saying troubles me for it implies that $\mathbf{F} = \dot{\mathbf{p}}$ works for a particle of time-varying mass and that contradicts Ján Lalinský's answer to this question: Second law of Newton for variable mass systems.
What's going on here?
Edit: Some people think that a particle that loses mass that isn't going anywhere--it simply disappears---isn't a useful fiction to solve problems. Consider a ball that is emitting mass isotropically whilst being pushed by some force. In analyzing the motion of this ball there is no need to consider the fact that material is indeed being emitted, all that is needed is the fact that the ball is losing mass. Here we can just use $\mathbf{F} = m\mathbf{a}$ instead of $\mathbf{F} = \dot{\mathbf{p}}$, no?