In quantum Bayesianism (QBsim) interpretation, the wave function $| \psi \rangle$, or density operator $\hat{\rho} = | \psi \rangle \langle \psi |$, is not objective. It is instead interpreted as the coding tool of statistical knowledge of each individual agent (or: observer). This is so far my understanding of the QBsim. In addition I also assume that, the QBism wouldn't provide new rules for predicting quantum phenomena. Assuming the above understanding is accurate and I haven't missed important points of the QBsim, I have a question about it.
Using the famous example in Feynman's book, for the double-slit experiment of an electron, suppose that there are simultaneously two independent agents:
1) the first agent sets up the measurement device near two slits, detecting which path the electron goes by (assuming the device does not destroy the electron, instead disturbs the electron inevitably).
2) the second agent sets up an array of "clicking" device on the screen of far-field, which records the electron's interference pattern.
Then the two agents independently predict whether there is an interference pattern on the screen or not. Let the two agents be independent and not communicate about the wave-function information. How can predictions of the two agents be consistent with the subjective nature of wave functions? Or put it in another way:
1) if the first agent predicts correctly, which appears to be obvious, and
2) the second agent predicts wrongly, which appears to be due to the uninformed "state" knowledge of this agent,
would the contradiction recover the "objectivity" of two agent's wave functions? More specifically, the first agent's "state" knowledge "collapsed" to the correct (or: objective) wave function, while the second agent was ignorant and possessed the wrong wave function. I believe I could write all above reasoning in the usual quantum formalism. So I am wondering if I misunderstood the QBism, or otherwise this example reveals a fundamental problem in the QBism interpretation.
EDIT
The motivation for my question came from my reading Englert's paper:
http://www.physics.nus.edu.sg/~phyebg/arXiv.1308.5290v2.pdf
where on page 8 (section 6) it is talking about the state reduction, which is interpreted as the observer's knowledge update. I just realized that, my original question is not appropriate concerning of what to predict for the two agents. But the point should still be valid:
1) from the first agent experience, the state reduced to a mixture of two paths:
$(|path_1, A_1\rangle \langle path_1, A_1| + |path_2, A_2\rangle \langle path_2, A_2|) / 2$ (1)
2) while from the second agent experience, the state evolved to an entanglement of two paths (before the electron hits the screen).
$(|path_1, A_1\rangle + |path_2, A_2\rangle) / \sqrt{2}$ (2)
where $A_i$ (i = 1, 2) refers to the state of observer 1's detector.
those two states are two different mathematical objects, which are considered "subjective" for each agent. Now it is true that both agents make the same prediction about "no-interference" on the screen. However, would it possible for the two agents to make contradictory predictions about other experiments - since the states in eq. (1) and (2) are two different mathematical objects?