My question - which is likely stupid or appears due to some confusion - stems from the following considerations: when quantizing canonically we are told (see any book on QFT) that a Dirac fermion field can be expressed as
$$ \psi(x) = \int d\tilde{p} (u \cdot\mathbf{a}\,e^{-ipx} + v\cdot\mathbf{b}^\dagger\, e^{ipx}) $$
where $\mathbf{a}$ destroys fermions and $\mathbf{b}$ creates antifermions and $u, v$ are Dirac spinors. A left-handed chirality projector $P_L = \frac{1-\gamma_5}{2}$ selects the part of this field $\psi_L$ that transforms according to the left-handed irreducible Lorentz representation.
So, how can the state created by $P_L (v\cdot \mathbf{b}^\dagger)$ be a right-handed antifermion? (as seen for instance from the fact that it interacts weakly)