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seen Jan 10 '12 at 15:28

Apr
3
answered In quantum mechanics, why do the probabilities of the possible outcomes of a measurement add up to 1?
Apr
3
comment In quantum mechanics, why do the probabilities of the possible outcomes of a measurement add up to 1?
What could you possibly mean by "no outcome"? The experimenter is transported backwards in time and the experiment never happened? I think this is what Vladimir was alluding to above. At any rate try to define "no outcome"
Mar
20
revised Young's experiment or why the light can't be described as a particle
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Mar
20
revised Young's experiment or why the light can't be described as a particle
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Mar
20
revised Young's experiment or why the light can't be described as a particle
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Mar
19
answered Why is air invisible?
Mar
19
answered Young's experiment or why the light can't be described as a particle
Mar
6
comment What's a better phrase than “speed of light” for the universal spacetime speed constant?
I call it the maximal velocity of any physically causal interaction. One could also say the maximal physical speed of transmission of any sort of information. Is this what you were asking for?
Mar
4
revised What is the world's biggest Schrodinger cat?
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Mar
4
answered What is the world's biggest Schrodinger cat?
Feb
26
revised Why is cold fusion considered bogus?
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Feb
26
revised Why is cold fusion considered bogus?
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Feb
20
answered The speed of gravity?
Feb
14
answered Example of a time varying function which can be easily measured
Feb
14
comment Example of a time varying function which can be easily measured
Watch out not to use a medical thermometer; it will break. Maybe an oven thermometer. Or could use a different temperature range, e.g. from 100 deg. F to room temp., i.e. letting it cool in different shaped vessels
Feb
12
comment Can Noether's theorem be understood intuitively?
Well, Vladimir's question/answer is now clearer to me. He apparently wants to know the relationship between Noether's therem and what Landau calls additive, conserved quantities. Relating it back to the original question, what parts of Noether's Thm. imply that the resultant integrals of motion are additive? This obviously relates to the intuitive understanding of the theorem and its interpretation, assuming the above is true.
Feb
11
comment Can Noether's theorem be understood intuitively?
Vladimir. Please cite the pages or sentences in Landau's book to which you are referring. Of course integrals of motion are not just numerical solutions. Are you implying that they somehow are?
Feb
11
comment Can Noether's theorem be understood intuitively?
I have a suggestion. Lets think of question(s) we can ask on Math.stackexchange to help clear all this up. Something like "What is the difference between integrals of motion as equations and isolating integrals? Do Noetherian Symmetries always yield isolating integrals? Why? What is the connection between additive symmetries (in particles) and Noetherian symmetries?" Let the mathematicians sort it out. Furthermore they are very polite. In a way, it is like going back to school. So this comment is a request to help perfect the question(s) we or I might ask on math.stackexchange
Feb
3
awarded  Nice Answer
Jan
31
awarded  Self-Learner