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visits member for 2 years, 10 months
seen Aug 12 at 22:57

Jun
18
revised Finite corrections to the Higgs mass in SUSY
added 18 characters in body
Jun
18
awarded  Scholar
Jun
18
accepted How can a left-handed fermion field create a right-handed antifermion?
Jun
18
asked Finite corrections to the Higgs mass in SUSY
Jun
2
awarded  Yearling
Jun
2
revised How can a left-handed fermion field create a right-handed antifermion?
added 42 characters in body
Jun
1
asked How can a left-handed fermion field create a right-handed antifermion?
May
12
awarded  Revival
May
11
comment What are threshold corrections?
So, are you saying that an example of threshold corrections is simply $\alpha_{em}^{SM} - \alpha_{em}^{QED}$ evaluated at the matching scale ($M_Z$ in this case)?
Apr
19
comment What are threshold corrections?
...I mentioned above is always there, no matter if there are some other relevant scales between the one you are interested in and the scale at which the full theory takes over. So, where are these corrections coming from exactly? I would also like to know how to calculate/estimate them. Do you know a reference where this is even loosely explained. I can fill details myself.
Apr
19
comment What are threshold corrections?
It's a good start. Thanks! However it's not the complete answer I'm looking for, yet. In principle, any high energy (HE) theory can be exactly described at the EFT level if one takes into account the infinite set of operators that appear hen one integrates out the heavy fields. Of course doing precisely that is impossible, one must always truncate the series somewhere and that introduces an error in the EFT calculation. However, I understand this is NOT what threshold corrections are about. Specifically, they appear when one crosses a mass scale (the "threshold") while the error....
Apr
19
awarded  Student
Apr
19
asked What are threshold corrections?
Feb
14
comment Divergence of One and Two Graviton Exchanges
Both statements are just dimensional analysis. For instance that the graviton exchange between two particles goes like $E^2/M_P^2$ can be derived as follows. The amplitude is dimensionless. Since the coupling to gravity goes like $1/M_P^2$ there must be something with dimensions of [$Energy^2$] in the numerator to compensate. The only Lorentz invariant quantity with energy dimensions is the energy in the center of mass frame $E$, thus the amplitude goes like $E^2/M_P^2$
Dec
12
answered The Equivalence principle of General Relativity and the Doppler Effect
Apr
14
awarded  Nice Answer
Mar
29
awarded  Yearling
Mar
8
awarded  Commentator
Mar
8
comment Are W & Z bosons virtual or not?
very nice. I was hoping somebody would write something like this so I wouldn't have to do it myself.
Mar
8
awarded  Critic