|visits||member for||5 months|
|seen||Dec 4 '13 at 14:04|
Grassmann paradox weirdness
Luboš Motl, how can be sure the mass term is real in dirac Lagrangian? Dirac spinors are grassmann even variables, therefore [ψψbar]† = -ψψbar,we obtain the opposite sign of the original mass term so it's not hermitian? ps: for two fermionic field A and B, (AB)† = -B†A†.
How is a Hamiltonian constructed from a Lagrangian with a Legendre transform
Trimok Why we have to add constraints with Hamiltonian representation to be equivalent the Lagrangian representation? What is/are physically or mathematically reason/s? Thank you very much for the answers.