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Grassmann paradox weirdness
Luboš Motl, how can be sure the mass term is real in dirac Lagrangian? Dirac spinors are grassmann even variables, therefore [ψψbar]† = -ψψbar,we obtain the opposite sign of the original mass term so it's not hermitian? ps: for two fermionic field A and B, (AB)† = -B†A†.
How is a Hamiltonian constructed from a Lagrangian with a Legendre transform
Trimok Why we have to add constraints with Hamiltonian representation to be equivalent the Lagrangian representation? What is/are physically or mathematically reason/s? Thank you very much for the answers.