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seen Mar 21 '11 at 6:58

Mar
22
awarded  Teacher
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17
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Mar
17
revised Why isn't the wave equation $\nabla^2 \psi - 1/c^2 \partial_{tt} \psi = (\frac{mc}{\hbar})^2\psi$
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Mar
17
answered Why isn't the wave equation $\nabla^2 \psi - 1/c^2 \partial_{tt} \psi = (\frac{mc}{\hbar})^2\psi$