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| visits | member for | 2 years, 3 months |
| seen | Apr 29 at 12:13 | |
| stats | profile views | 86 |
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Feb 1 |
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Is the Planck length Lorentz invariant? I had a look at the cited paper. All derivations for the Planck length are done using non-relativistic QM and Newtonian Gravity, this means in the limit v<<c. The author doesn't seem to care about that he often compares the Lorentz invariant Planck length with Lorentz non-invariant 3-lengths of some objects. So I think the statement, that new physics should be happening below some Planck scale is not a Lorentz invariant statement. And I doubt that it's a good idea to use Lorentz non-invariant statements like that as a guideline on the way to a theory of Quantum Gravity. |
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Feb 1 |
awarded | Supporter |
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Jan 31 |
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Why do we have an elementary charge but no elementary mass? @Lubos: So you are basically saying that we have an elementary charge, because magnetic monopoles exist and we have no elementary mass, because we measure a positive cosmological constant? |
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Jan 31 |
awarded | Nice Question |
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Jan 30 |
asked | Why do we have an elementary charge but no elementary mass? |
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Jan 29 |
awarded | Student |
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Jan 29 |
asked | How to compute the speed of sound in relativistic hydrodynamic? |
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Jan 28 |
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Is the Planck length Lorentz invariant? @Lubos Motl: I think I made clear in my question that I do not really agree with the authors of the paper. However the paper we talk about was published in Phys.Rev.Lett., so whatever we think about the author it was accepted in a peer-reviewed journal. But I agree with you, that maybe I should have formulated the question more in the way you suggested. Still I think the question can be answered and is not completely nonsense. I'm also interested in the second part about deriving the planck length without using compton wavelength and schwarzschild radius. |
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Jan 28 |
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Is the Planck length Lorentz invariant? But why are papers written about that question? The second author on the paper I'm citing is actually Lee Smolin, maybe you heard about him? Also it is clear that $c$ is Lorentz invariant because this was measured, but what about $h$ and $G$? Is there an experiment showing the Lorentz Invarianz of these two values? |
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Jan 28 |
asked | Is the Planck length Lorentz invariant? |