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Aug
15
comment Is thermodynamic free energy and potential energy the same thing?
Can one say that thermodynamic free energy is the same as potential energy in the limit when the number of particles N -> 1?
Jul
20
comment Homemade salad dressing separates into layers after it sits for a while. Why doesn't this violate the 2nd law of thermodynamics?
I think this could also happen without friction. The selfgravity of the balls would make them clump together , if their initial speed is not too high (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jeans_instability). Does that mean that for a selfgravitating system a clumped/ordered state can be the one with the highest entropy?
Jul
19
asked Is thermodynamic free energy and potential energy the same thing?
Jul
5
awarded  Necromancer
Jul
2
awarded  Curious
Apr
29
accepted Could Gamma ray bursts be caused by matter-antimatter annihilation?
Apr
29
accepted Can nowadays spin be described using path integrals?
Apr
16
awarded  Nice Question
Apr
16
comment Can nowadays spin be described using path integrals?
Google books allows to see the relevant pages online: books.google.de/…
Apr
14
asked Can nowadays spin be described using path integrals?
Mar
25
awarded  Notable Question
Mar
20
awarded  Popular Question
Mar
10
accepted Is it possible to split baryons and extract useable energy out of it?
Mar
9
comment Could Gamma ray bursts be caused by matter-antimatter annihilation?
I'm talking about these ones: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gamma-ray_burst
Mar
9
asked Could Gamma ray bursts be caused by matter-antimatter annihilation?
Mar
2
accepted How can (in Dirac's terminology) the product of two “real” linear operators be “not real”?
Mar
1
comment How can (in Dirac's terminology) the product of two “real” linear operators be “not real”?
And self-adjoint/Hermitian means the operator has real eigenvalues?
Mar
1
comment How can (in Dirac's terminology) the product of two “real” linear operators be “not real”?
I cannot find the word Hermitian on the page before. But maybe you are referring to this sentence: "A linear operator may equal its adjoint, and it is then called self-adjoint. It corresponds to a real dynamical variable, so it may be called alternatively a real linear operator." So for Dirac a real linear operator is a self-adjoint operator and an imaginary operator is then a non-self-adjoint operator?
Mar
1
asked How can (in Dirac's terminology) the product of two “real” linear operators be “not real”?
Feb
28
awarded  Nice Question