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2

To be clear what we're talking about (as I'm not totally sure this is what the question intended), I'll talk about the paradigmatic example of AdS/CFT, the equivalence between $\mathcal N=4$ Yang-Mills on the one hand, and IIB string on (asymptotically) $AdS_5\times S^5$ on the other (at general parameters: no t'Hooft limits etc). We are very much closer ...


2

In principle yes, but there are several conceptual and technical issues that make it unclear how this could be achieved. Even though the AdS/CFT correspondence is conjectured to be exact(with much evidence hinting at this), it is hard to prove this essentially because in order to do calculations, one still has to use approximations and perturbation theory on ...


6

Yes, one traditional alternative to the path integral formalism is the operator formalism. For QED with abelian gauge group, the old quantization formulation is the Gupta-Bleuler formulation. For QCD/Yang-Mills theory with non-abelian gauge group, the Gupta-Bleuler formulation is replaced by the BRST formulation. The BRST formulation exists in at least 3 ...


3

Let's assume a typical fermionic mass-term (interacting leptons and quarks are spin 1/2-particles): $$ \tag 1 \bar{\Psi}\Psi = \bar{\Psi}\left(\frac{1 + \gamma_{5}}{2} + \frac{1 - \gamma_{5}}{2}\right)\Psi = \left| \bar{\Psi}\left( 1 \pm \gamma_{5} \right) = \left( (1 \mp \gamma_{5})\Psi\right)^{\dagger}\gamma_{0} \right| = $$ $$ =\bar{\Psi}_{L}\Psi_{R} + ...



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