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Lorentz invariance refers to the action $S=\int\mathcal{L}(x)\,\mathrm{d}x$, not to the Lagrangian. To determine the condition on the Lagrangian which we must have, we make the coordinate change $x\to \Lambda x=:x'$ (a Lorentz transformation) and use the general fact that the Jacobian of a Lorentz transformation is unity, so ...


7

The question puts the cart before the horse. It is not that you derive that particles described by the Dirac equation have spin $\frac 1 2$. Rather, the Dirac equation is found as the equation for spin $\frac 1 2$ particles. A Dirac spinor $\psi$ is an element of the representation $(0,\frac 1 2) \oplus (\frac 1 2, 0)$ of the Lorentz group.1 In both ...


0

The ten-dimensional case is explained in some detail in appendix 4.A of volume one of Green-Schwarz-Witten. Let me therefore consider the 4d case here. The calculation works essentially the same in 3d, 6d and 10d, though you can sometimes make use of Majorana and/or Weyl conditions of the spinors to simplify things. We want to check that the expression ...


2

The relation you ask about is just a reshuffling of the components. Writing out the indices we have $$ \Theta_1^T C \, \Gamma_{\mu} \Theta_2 = (\Theta_1^T)_a C_{ab} \, (\Gamma_{\mu})_{bc} (\Theta_2)_c = - (\Theta_2)_c (\Gamma_{\mu})_{bc} C_{ab} (\Theta_1^T)_a = - (\Theta_2^T)_c (\Gamma_{\mu}^T)_{cb} (C^T)_{ba} (\Theta_1)_a $$ where the minus sign in the ...



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