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To understand the essence of perturbative renormalization you don't need any quantum field theory nor any quantum mechanics. A simple toy model suffices. Suppose your theory makes a prediction for two distinct observables $F$ and $G$ in terms of a perturbative parameter $g$: $$F = g + g^2 (S+1) + g^3 (S+1)^2 + g^4 (S+1)^3 + ...$$ $$G = g + g^2 (S-1) + g^3 ...


4

I'm not being precise, but morally: Imagine you were integrating out all modes above a frequency $b\Lambda$. Consider $\omega < b\Lambda < 3 \omega$. A mode $\phi$ with frequency $\omega$ when cubed, will have some part of it as mode of frequency $3 \omega$, since: $\sin (3x) = 3 \sin (x) - 4 \sin^3 (x)$. (Easier to see that ${(e^{i \omega t})}^3 = ...


2

I find the whole notation here a bit confusing since we are talking about momenta modes while using real space notation (maybe I'm the only one...). To clarify what is going on we can switch to momentum space instead. Consider the quadratic term in the exponential: \begin{align} \int d^4x \phi ^2 & = \int d^4x \int d^4k d^4k' \phi _k \phi ^\ast _{ k ' ...


2

Normally renormalization is necessary when the phenomenological constants acquire unnecessary perturbative corrections, not obligatorily divergent. But there may be other cases. Read, for example, http://www.physics.umd.edu/courses/Phys851/Luty/notes/renorm.pdf for QM.



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