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Let us first restate the mathematical statement that two operators $\hat A$ and $\hat B$ commute with each other. It means that $$\hat A \hat B - \hat B \hat A = 0,$$ which you can rearrange to $$\hat A \hat B = \hat B \hat A.$$ If you recall that operators act on quantum mechanical states and give you a new state in return, then this means that with $\hat ... 17 There is a fair amount of background mathematics to this question, so it will be a while before the punch line. In quantum mechanics, we aren't working with numbers to represent the state of a system. Instead we use vectors. For the purpose of a simple introduction, you can think of a vector as a list of several numbers. Therefore, a number itself is a ... 12 Time is not a variable in Quantum Mechanics (QM), it's a parameter — much in the same way as it is in Classical (Newtonian) Mechanics. So, if you have a Hamiltonian, e.g., for the harmonic oscillator, you have$\omega$as a parameter, as well as the masses of the particle(s) involved, say$m$, and you also have time — even though it's not something that ... 12 There are observables corresponding to the light going through both slits. You can write down a basis: "it went through slit A + slit B", and "it went through slit A - slit B". Although maybe you can't detect these observables easily with an experiment, they're perfectly good observables, they're orthogonal, and a clever enough experiment should be able to ... 12 Are we talking quantum mechanics? Then I'd say that a "measurement" is any operation that entangles orthogonal states of the system under consideration with orthogonal states of the environment. "Measurement" is the important thing in most formulations of QM. Colloquially speaking, an observer is something that performs measurements. The only other place ... 11 I don't have a complete answer, but maybe the following is useful for your purposes: Consider the Laplacian$\Delta$on a circular drum of unit radius. As explained on the wikipedia page, the axially symmetric eigenvectors$\Delta u(r) = -\lambda^2 u(r) $are Bessel functions$u(r)=J_0(\lambda r)$. Obviously, the boundary condition requires ... 9 Several reasons: Orthogonal functions arise naturally in the study of Sturm-Liouville theory which includes many classical and quantum system mathematical models; More generally, it is the class of normal operators (and an important special case self adjoint operators) which the spectral theorem most readily works and is most complete for. The eigenvectors ... 8 A simple example of non-commutativity is rotations in 3D, cf. figure. Physically, the rotations around the$x$- and the$y$-axis are generated by angular momentum operators$\hat{L}_x$and$\hat{L}_y$, respectively, which do not commute. From the mathematical expressions for$\hat{L}_x$and$\hat{L}_y$, you may proceed with the mathematical derivation, ... 7 It's a very good question but the answer is No, there is nothing such as "it went through both slits" observable (i.e. no linear operator that would correspond to this Yes/No question). The reason is that such "information" cannot be observed, not even in principle and not even statistically. Much more generally, there don't exist any observables that would ... 7 There is quite a lot of very important information hidden in the term hermitian. For an operator$A$on a finite-dimensional Hilbert space$\mathcal H$, one can show that there exists an orthonormal basis for the Hilbert space consisting of eigenvectors of the operator$A$. Moreover, one can show that the eigenvalues corresponding to these eigenvectors ... 6 Yes, since it is the maximal set of compatible observables, it includes all observables for which$|a\rangle$,$|b\rangle$,$|c\rangle$, etc. are the eigenvectors (I'll use the notation$|\psi_1\rangle$,$|\psi_2\rangle$,$|\psi_3\rangle$etc instead). Hence this includes the observable$D = \sum_k k |\psi_k\rangle \langle \psi_k|$. However$D$has a unique ... 6 Assume that you have a maximal set$A,B,C,\ldots$and two states$\phi_1$and$\phi_2$with the same set of eigenvalues in that set. Then construct the operator$Z = |\phi_1\rangle\langle\phi_1|$. Convince yourself that it would distinguish between$\phi_1$and$\phi_2$, and that it would commute with all of$A,B,C,\ldots$--- i.e. your original set was not ... 6 The statement is that if$K$and$L$are Hermitian operators – which means $$K = K^\dagger, \quad L = L^\dagger$$ and it implies that the eigenvalues of$K,L$are real and the eigenvectors with different eigenvalues are orthogonal to each other, then$i(KL-LK)$(the same as yours) is also Hermitian. This is easily proved by computing the Hermitian ... 6 As Lubos has mentioned$QP-PQ=i\hbar$is one of the basic requirements of quantum mechanics. Classically observables are functions of variables$q$, and$p$and Poisson bracket relation read$\{q,p\}=1$(note that$\{q,p\}$is unitless quantity ) In QM observables are required to be hermitian operators (so that they can have real eigenvalues). In ... 6 This is a rough version of the summary of the complete answer I posted on math.stackexchange, where more details are discussed in a long digression, in particular mathematical motivations for your points 1., 3. and 4. (Any reader interested in more explanations and a longer updated list of references should check out that other answer in Math.SE). I eagerly ... 6 Every observable in the technical or mathematical sense (linear Hermitian operator on the Hilbert space) is, in principle, observable in the physical operational sense, too. That's why it's called this way. Magnetic fields may be measured, for example, by compasses. Analogous methods exist for electric fields, scalar fields, or any other fields. For ... 5 I would actually expect this to be rare, and only generically true when the state of the system corresponds to an eigenstate. This simply because, for a state$\psi = \sum a_{n}\lvert\phi_{n}\rangle$with eigenvalues$V_{n}$, you would have$\langle V\rangle = \sum V_{n}\lvert a_{n}\rvert^{2}$, which is not constrained to be equal to one of the$V_{n}$. ... 5 There exists a set of eigenstates,$\{ |\psi_\lambda\rangle \}$, such that$L|\psi_\lambda\rangle = \lambda|\psi_\lambda\rangle$where$\lambda$is a real eigenvalue and$|\psi_\lambda\rangle$is an eigenstate of$L$. The$\lambda$represents the value of a physical observable associated with the eigenstate$|\psi_\lambda\rangle$. There is currently no ... 5 If$\psi$is a normalized eigenvector of$L^2$and$\lambda$the corresponding eigenvalue then$\lambda=\psi^*\lambda\psi=\psi^*L^2\psi=(L\psi)^*(L\psi)$. Thus$\lambda$is manifestly real and nonnegative. This even holds if$L$is a vector of noncommuting real (i.e., Hermitian) quantities, such as angular momentum. Then we get in the last step$\sum_i ...

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One problem with the given $3\times 3$ matrix example is that the eigenspaces are not orthogonal. Thus it doesn't make sense to say that one has with 100% certainty measured the system to be in some eigenspace but not in the others, because there may be a non-zero overlap to a different eigenspace. One may prove$^{1}$ that an operator is Hermitian if and ...

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I don't think this question has been answered. The original poster asked: why is \begin{align} \int dp |p\rangle \langle p| = 1, \end{align} up to unimportant normalization issues that have been discussed extensively (but are off the point). The above statement is equivalent to the question of completeness of a set of states on an Hilbert space (which ahmed ...

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There are many experiments, the most famous of them is probably the Cavendish experiment, done in 18th century by a British scientist. I believe it was the first one to measure the force acting between two masses in a laboratory. He calculated the attraction between two lead spheres. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cavendish_experiment So, I believe 'yes' is ...

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The wave function isn't an operator; the word "operator" in quantum mechanics means something more precise than "function". You might say that the momentum operator is "something to put in an integral to get the expectation value of momentum"; let me explain. We know that for a particle in a state $\psi$,  \langle x \rangle = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x ...

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There is no time operator in quantum mechanics. At least, there's no nontrivial time operator. You could have an operator whose action is just to multiply a function by $t$, but time is a parameter in QM, so the operator will never do anything more complicated than that. Its eigenfunctions wouldn't be terribly useful either because they would just be delta ...

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The wave function is a solution of an equation. It is as subjective and as objective as all mathematical solutions to equations describing physical fields, whether classical or quantum mechanical. Certainly as a solution it is objective, a formula written on paper. Subjectivity enters in the choice of the equation to be solved and thus the choice of the ...

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Transcendental numbers often pop out in higher-loop Feynman diagram calculations. One example is the spectrum of local operators in $\mathcal{N}=4$ supersymmetric Yang-Mills theory, where the anomalous dimensions at higher loops in general contain $\zeta$-functions. As an example, the dimension of the operator $\mathop{Tr} \phi^a\phi^a$ is given ...

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Questions 1,2: An observable is an element that is obtained from experiments. You can take this as the definition of an observable. The fact that we make an operator and give it some properties does not change/influence the outcome of an experiment. It just so happens that the theory we have ascribes linear, hermitian operators to explain experiments. With ...

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If you want to see something different, there are actually a few articles by Carl Bender developing quantum mechanics formulated with parity-time symmetric operators. He shows that some Hamiltonians are not Hermitian, yet they have real eigenvalues and seem to represent valid physical systems. If you think about it, the requirement that your operator is ...

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