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The answer is that the premise is wrong. There can't be a hydrogen wave function with the coefficients you have written. Even if there was no $| 1 0 0 \rangle$ state present, the state isn't normalized. That means that it isn't physical. However, remember that the coefficients are somewhat arbitrary, that is, we're allowed to multiply the whole wavefunction ...


Looks like textbook hybridization problem, did you check the usual suspects, or e.g. this one?


The state you have given is not normalisable as a consequence of the results of the calculations you have done. Even if the first state (with coefficient $A$) was not present it would not be normalised. To normalise what you have given, another constant needs to multiply everything through (so that the relative proportions are unchanged


The graph shows the probability of finding the electron between the distances $r$ and $r + dr$. This probability is given by: $$ P = \psi^* \psi dV $$ where $dV$ is the volume element: $$ dV = 4\pi r^2 dr $$ So we get the probability: $$ P(r,r+dr) = \psi^* \psi 4\pi r^2 dr $$ and therefore when $r = 0$ the probability $P = 0$. It isn't that the ...


Yes, it is the same as for every solution to the Schroedinger equation. The trick is that the more fundamental one is the time-dependent Schroedinger equation. However, since often (or perhaps always in introductory quantum mechanics) we do not care about a global phase, we throw it away. That is the essence, the enabling step, to derive the time-independent ...


I pulled most of this from Wikipedia here. A stationary state is called ''stationary'' because the system remains in the same state as time elapses, in every observable way. For a single-particle Hamiltonian, this means that the particle has a constant probability distribution for its position, its velocity, its spin, etc. A stationary state is not ...

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