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0

$$F/(ma) = 1$$ $$E/(mc^2) = 1$$ $$U/(RI) = 1$$ etc, I think you get the point :) Probably you ask this, because many equations are preferred in the form "= 0". Why this is advantageous is probably what you wanted... or should have wanted to ask, right?

2

Sure. For example: $$\varepsilon_0\cdot \mu_0 \cdot c^2 = 1$$ with the electric and magnetic field constants and the speed of light.

-1

Many of the answers given above are wrong. The word "causal" is not subjective. One of the answers includes the analogy: if I (the charge) throw a ball (the electric field) at a lamp, was the cause of the lamp breaking (the change in the magnetic field) the ball or me? But this is not a good analogy because the two cases are not at all similar. If a ...

0

If we define some event which we will call "p" to be the cause and "q" to be its effect, then p and q should satisfy the following rules, 1.p implies q but q doesn't imply p. 2.in the absense of p, q shouldn't exist either. 3.p and q shouldn't be simultaneous events as viewed from any inertial frame of reference.

0

Ambiguous is the direction of the magnetic field lines. Somehow ambiguous is the direction of the electric current too because there are a technical direction from plus to minus or the real direction of the negative charged electrons from minus to plus. So one has to use the right hand rule or the left hand rule. More important is the fact that - if the ...

1

The convention is that the direction of the magnetic dipole is determined from the direction of the current using the right hand rule. For example, looking down on a loop with a clockwise current means that the magnetic moment is downwards.

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