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8

When I first started to study quantum mechanics, my physics text book told that particles have spin of either 1/2 or -1/2. That's wrong. Particles can have any integer or half-integer spin. (There are some deeply technical reasons that fundamental particles are expected to have spin ranging from -2 to 2, but if you include composite particles, any ...


7

Ernie is close to the correct answer, but the fundamental thing that needs to be considered is how the internal energy of the body flows. I researched this in a very interesting book I''m still reading, Principles of Animal Locomotion . Chapter 7 addresses running and section 7.5 discusses Internal Kinetic Energy . Limb accelerations can store kinetic energy ...


6

That spin follows the angular momentum algebra is no accident - like angular momentum, it is part of the conserved quantity - the Noether charge - associated to rotations. The reason why the $\mathfrak{so}(3)$ transformations of spin should be indeed those associated to the $\mathfrak{so}(3)$ of spatial rotations is not answerable in QM alone - you have to ...


6

Speculating here... I suspect that for light weights the answer is yes - with the right technique. Your center of mass moves up and down which requires energy being absorbed and expended by your legs. Moving your arms with small weights should allow you to even out the motion, lowering the peak stress on your legs so they tire more slowly. In a sense you ...


6

It's not possible to derive the orbital angular momentum $L = r \times p$ from the $\mathfrak{so}(3)$ commutation relations alone, since the spin operator $S$ also fulfills the same commutation relations, but certainly is different from $r \times p$.


6

I have read somewhere that commutation relations of the form \begin{equation} [a_i,b_j]=\epsilon_{ijk} c_k \end{equation} admit a "natural rewriting in terms of cross products", but there weren't any details about this statement. This "natural rewriting" of the canonical commutation relations for angular momenta in term of cross products is: $$ ...


5

The selection rules for atomic transitions are entirely governed by how much angular momentum the photon can carry away. A dipole transition (in the nomenclature, E1 or M1, depending on its parity) carries away angular momentum $\hbar$, so the atom's initial and final state must have angular momentum quantum numbers $J$ differing by zero or one. A ...


4

You appear confused by how spin is introduced in ordinary QM. It is rather ad hoc: Given a Hilbert space without spin degrees of freedom of a particle $\mathcal{H}_0$, and the spin $s$ of the particle, we take the total space of states of the particle to be $\mathcal{H}_0\otimes \mathcal{S}_s$, where $\mathcal{S}_s$ is a $2s+1$-dimensional complex Hilbert ...


4

First, let us look at the current rate at which the moon slows down. I have a few different sources, and they don't all give me the same answer. First, there is this claim that Earth slows down at a rate of about 0.005 seconds per year per year. A year has approximately $365.25 \cdot 24 \cdot 3600 = 3.15\cdot 10^7 \mathrm{sec}$, so 0.005 seconds change ...


3

Angular momentum is that which is conserved under rotations. Equivalently, the angular momentum operators are the generators of rotations. This holds both classically and quantumly by (versions of) Noether's theorem. Defining "angular momentum" as $\vec x \times \vec p$ classically and then showing that it is conserved is doing it the wrong way around from ...


3

It is a misconception to say that In QM [...] we know that the the electron does not radiate EM-Waves because it is not actually circling around the nucleus. It is sometimes here and there. In QM the notion of "circling round the nucleus" does indeed fail to make sense, but this is not why electrons don't radiate EM waves. Instead, an atom in its ...


3

It would appear that the object is in circular motion at any given instant, which implies that the tension force provided by the string is always perpendicular to the velocity of the mass. Mostly true, but not quite. If the string is held steady, then the object is in circular motion. But by pulling the string harder than that, it moves off of ...


3

$\newcommand{\ket}[1]{\left| #1 \right>}$ Note that $ l=0$ has only one state $m=0$. Therefore the tensor product of $l=1$ and $l=0$ can be written as: $$ (l=1)\otimes (l=0) = \left\{ \begin{array} &\ket{l= 1,m=1} \otimes \ket{l=0,m=0} \\ \ket{l=1,m=1} \otimes \ket{l=0,m=0} \\ \ket{l=1,m=1} \otimes \ket{l=0,m=0} \\ \end{array} \right\}=(l=1) $$ As ...


3

How does the kinetic energy of a ballerina increase? Conservation of angular momentum: $$L_1=L_2 \implies I_1\omega_1=I_2\omega_2\quad\quad (1)$$ Pulling in your arms reduces moment of inertia $I$, since the same mass is now distributed over a volume closer to the spin centre, $I=\sum mr^2$. As you say, reducing $I$, so $I_2<I_1$, implies ...


3

The theorem does not apply, as we do not have spherical symmetry. All we have is rotational symmetry about a preferred axis. In fact, the gravitational field outside a rotating object will be Kerr, which only reduces to Schwarzschild in the case of no rotation. Otherwise, there will be time-space terms in the metric, making it not static. Still, Kerr is ...


3

This decay (occurring via the strong interaction) violates the charge conjugation since $J^{PC}(\pi^0) = 0^{-+}, J^{PC}(\rho^0) = 1^{--}, J^{PC}(\eta'^0) = 0^{-+}$. The charge conjugation transforms a particle in its anti-particle. In the case of the 3 particles involved in this decay, they are all their own anti-particle, and the effect of the charge ...


2

Firstly, $m$ does not have to be an integer, it is entirely possible for $m$ to be 1/2 for instance. Your points ,1-3 are fine. There are is a maximal and a minimal value of $m$. Call the maximal value $M$ (we have to call it something). Now we can apply the lower operator any number of times, each time it lowers the value of $m$ by a full integer ...


2

Your final result looks right to me. Everything should be half-integers. A basic rule of combining two quantized angular momenta is that the quantum number of the resultant can be anywhere between the sum of the original quantum numbers and the absolute value of the difference of them, in integer steps. Consider $\ell_1$ = 1 combining with $\ell_2$=3. The ...


2

Even if the original dust cloud only had a relatively small angular velocity (which it might have had for all sorts of reasons), the process of collapsing would have amplified it. That is, the collapse process preserves the angular momentum, but it translates to a much larger rotational speed in the newly-collapsed system. Think of what happens to a spinning ...


2

From this paper$^1$ we have the equations for a particle of zero total energy on an infalling trajectory in the equatorial plane: $$\begin{align} \Sigma\frac{d\theta}{d\tau} &= 0 \\ \Sigma\frac{dr}{d\tau} &= -\sqrt{2Mr(r^2 + a^2)} \\ \Sigma\frac{dt}{d\tau} &= -a^2\sin^2\theta + \frac{(r^2 + a^2)^2}{r^2-2Mr+a^2} \\ \Sigma\frac{d\phi}{d\tau} ...


2

Everything depends on how your fields (vectors and spinors are fields in the classical theory, and when you quantize in QFT, they become operator-valued fields) transform when you make a Lorentz transform: An scalar is a field that doesn't change at all: $\phi'(x') = \phi(x)$. Examples are the Higgs and pions. A vector field is a field that transform like ...


2

For orbital angular momentum, indeed, $L = x\times p$ even as a quantum operator, see this question. When writing a ket $\lvert l,m \rangle$, this is meant to live in the $2l+1$-dimensional space $\mathcal{H}_l = \mathbb{C}^{2l+1}$ on which the representation of the angular momentum algebra labelled by $l$ exists ($m$ is the eigenvalue of the ket for ...


2

All the stars would be attracting each other and hence they would stick to each to attain equilibrium. Why doesn't this happen? This is an old question. Even Newton himself had thought about this question. His idea was that in long distances or separations (say, inter-galactic distances) the force of gravity might appear to be repulsive. That's why not ...


2

If the collision is not perfectly along the line connecting the centers of mass of the pucks, they will exert torques on each other as well as forces. The angular momentum of the pair will be conserved, so if the incoming puck was not spinning, the pucks will exit the collision spinning in opposite directions. If the surface they slide on is frictionless, ...


2

You're probably used to the convention where a hat is used to denote that something is an operator. But that convention is not universal. In many cases, when it's clear from the context whether something is an operator or not, we just write it without a hat either way. For this case in particular, $\boldsymbol{J}$ is defined to be an operator. The fact that ...


2

You say you get the physical justification for having some ladder operator(s) give $\hat L_+ \left|\text{state}\right> = 0$. For angular momentum both the raising and lowering operators eventually terminate; for the harmonic oscillator only the lowering operator terminates, at the ground state. Here's a mathematical argument that the termination must end ...


2

Yes, you're right. One of the postulate of QM is that the set of eigenfunctions of a complete set of operators (where with complete I mean a set of physical quantity whose knowledge completely describe the state of the system) is a complete set of functions, where this time with complete I mean that every solution $\psi$ of the relative Shroedinger's ...


2

The Moon rotates around the Earth slower than the rotation of the Earth itself. That's why, from a fix point on the Earth, the Moon appears to be moving. The Moon creates the tide on Earth. So the tide "follows" the Moon. However as the Earth rotates faster than the Moon it will tend to carry the tide with itself "forward". The Moon pulls the tide toward ...


1

You are really asking about the reaction forces felt on a rod when you push on its end. For a rod, you can work with a quantity called the reduced mass (see for example this excellent answer for the derivation). As long as the rod is balanced on its end, the reduced mass tells you exactly how much greater the inertia of the cart appears to be: $$m_r = ...


1

The two questions are slightly different. Each individual measurement of $L^2$ or $L_z$ will return an eigenvalue. In this case, you have only one possible measurement for $L^2$ (corresponding to $l=1$), but you have two possible measurements for $L_z$; 2/3 of the time you'll get $m=1$, and 1/3 of the time you'll get $m=0$. The expectation value, on the ...



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