# Tagged Questions

A complex scalar field that describes a quantum mechanical system. The square of the modulus of the wave function gives the probability of the system to be found in a particular state.

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### Quantum Wave Mechanics

I am studying QM-I these days. Now, I just think of the wave function as just a mathematical function that defines the state of the particle at an instant and from it you can extract various ...
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### Hydrogen radial wave function infinity at $r=0$

When trying to solve the Schrödinger equation for hydrogen, one usually splits up the wave function into two parts: $$\psi(r,\phi,\theta)= R(r)Y_{l,m}(\phi,\theta).$$ I understand that the radial ...
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### General question about the potential barrier problem: Why does $\exp( kx)$ diverge when $x>0$ in the case when $E < V(x)$?

For the two images below, the first potential barrier has particles approaching it where $E > V_o$ & the second has a particle that has $E < V_o$, where $E$ is the energy of the particles ...
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### QM: Why is there a minus sign on the Energy operator when using complex conjugate?

I understand how they get the first equation. But I have no idea why there is a minus sign on the second equation: This is from a derivation for the probability density current found here: http://...
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### Is there something wrong with quantizing two times in second quantization?

Second quantization is sometimes considered to be a bad name, because a single quantization is enough. For electrons, we can either start from a many body viewpoint and introduce field operators or we ...
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### How do I take take the partial derivatives of the general solution to the TDSE for a free particle? [closed]

Consider the general solution to the time-dependent Schrödinger equation for a free particle \begin{align*} \Psi(x,t) &=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \phi(k) e^{i\left(\hbar kx-\...
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### Can someone clarify what should and should not be an operator in my verification of the 1D solution to the SE for a free particle?

I just worked out the 1D free particle solution to the Schrödinger equation. My wave function was $$\psi(x,t) = Ae^{i(px-Et)/\hbar}$$ So I plugged this into both sides ...
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