2
votes
1answer
54 views

Why do we take the value of the constant in Coulomb's law as $\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}$? [duplicate]

Why do we take the value of the constant in Coulomb's law as $\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}$?
0
votes
2answers
62 views

Could Charles-Augustin de Coulomb measure the charge in Coulombs?

Did Charles-Augustin de Coulomb know: Coulomb's constant Coulomb (as a unit) if not then what was the first time it was measured?
3
votes
1answer
140 views

Units for physical constants

Someone told me that units for $G$ and $\epsilon_0$ (gravitational constant and Coulomb's constant) are placed there simply to make equations work dimensionally and that there is no real physical ...
2
votes
2answers
303 views

Newton's Law of Graviation: Why $G$ and not e.g. $\dfrac{1}{4\pi G_0}$?

I've been wondering, in Coulomb's Law, $k_e = \dfrac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}$. Therefore, why do we use $G$ in Newton's Law of Gravitation? What if the constant is more like Coulomb's Law, e.g. $G = ...