2
votes
1answer
97 views

Why is $\vert I=1,I_3=1\rangle = -p\bar n$

My book doesn't explain well how to build a doublet of antiparticles that transforms the same way the particle doublet $(p,n)^T$ (proton neutron) does. They claim $$\tag 1 \vert I=1,I_3=1\rangle = ...
0
votes
1answer
103 views

Difference between $|0\rangle$ and $0$ in the context of isospin

I know this has been asked before, but I am confused having read it in the context of isospin, where the creation operators act on the "vacuum" state (representing no particles) $$a^\dagger_m|0\rangle ...