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Duality and Fourier Transforms [closed]

I read that $(FF(f))(x)=2\pi f(-x)$, where $F$ is the Fourier transform and $F(f(x-a))(k)=\exp(-ika) X(k)$ where $X(k)=F(f(x))$ implies $F(\exp(iax)f(x))(k)=X(k-a)$. But I don't see how that is ...