# Tagged Questions

A fully relativistic (Lorentz covariant) description, first put forward by Paul Dirac in 1928, of the first quantized, spin one half fermion with nonzero mass. Physical notions to do with this equation include the Dirac sea, Dirac hole theory, the Klein Paradox and the fine structure of the Hydrogen ...

1k views

### Why fermions have a first order (Dirac) equation and bosons a second order one?

Is there a deep reason for a fermion to have a first order equation in the derivative while the bosons have a second order one? Does this imply deep theoretical differences (like space phase dimesion ...
2k views

224 views

### Is there a 2D manifold on which the Dirac equation has a zero mode?

The two-dimensional (2D) Dirac equation $(\sigma_1iD_1+\sigma_2 iD_2)\psi=E\psi$ admits zero mode ($E=0$) solutions on a non-trivial gauge background, such as the zero mode at the core of a U(1) gauge ...
884 views

528 views

### Relation for Dirac-spinors of different helicities

Assume that we have massless spin-1/2 particles. The Dirac-spinor is the solution of the Dirac equation: $$p^\mu \gamma_\mu u_\pm(p) = 0, \quad p^2 = 0$$ The subscripts $\pm$ denote two different ...
4k views

### Majorana mass vs Dirac Mass

Why is it said that the Dirac mass term conserves the fermion number but the Majorana mass term does not? Can someone explain this mathematically? Which breakdown of symmetry is responsible for ...
138 views

### Why zero modes of the internal Dirac operator must be in representations of the isometry group of the compact space

Imagine a manifold $\mathbb{R}^{1,3}\times{}B$ where $B$ is a compact group-manifold with isometry group $U(1)\times{}SU(2)\times{}SU(3)$. Let's consider the Dirac equation for a massless Spinor ...