# Tagged Questions

A fully relativistic (Lorentz covariant) description, first put forward by Paul Dirac in 1928, of the first quantized, spin one half fermion with nonzero mass. Physical notions to do with this equation include the Dirac sea, Dirac hole theory, the Klein Paradox and the fine structure of the Hydrogen ...

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### Covariant formulation of physical equations?

Is it possible to rewrite equations like the Klein-Gordon, the Dirac or the Proca equation in a generally covariant way? And if yes, how and how can the general covariance be shown? (I searched for ...
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### Is there a 2D manifold on which the Dirac equation has a zero mode?

The two-dimensional (2D) Dirac equation $(\sigma_1iD_1+\sigma_2 iD_2)\psi=E\psi$ admits zero mode ($E=0$) solutions on a non-trivial gauge background, such as the zero mode at the core of a U(1) gauge ...
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### What specifically is incorrect about the Dirac Sea interpretation?

So taking the square root of $E^2 = (m_oc^2)^2 + p^2c^2$ yields two solutions. The Dirac Sea treats the negative solution as an infinite space of electrons with negative energy. All the observable ...
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### Transformation of spinors due to Lorentz group

Assume we have a Dirac spinor $\psi(x)$ which satisfies the Dirac equation: $$(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu} - m)\psi(x) = 0.$$ If we boost our spacetime coordinates to a new system with a Lorentz ...
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### Showing that a bilinear variation is Lorentz invariant

Let $\psi, \chi$ be a spinor (say Dirac). Then the infinitesimal Lorentz variation is given by $$\delta \psi = -\frac{1}{4}\lambda^{\mu \nu} \gamma_{\mu \nu}\psi$$ then I think that the conjugate is ...
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### Help with a vector-spinor equation

How can I show that the equation $$\gamma^{abc}\partial_{b}\psi_c=0$$ leads to $$\partial_{b}\psi_{c}-\partial_{c}\psi_{b}=0?$$ I know that $$\gamma^{abc}= \frac{1}{2}\{ \gamma^{a}, \gamma^{bc} \}$$ ...
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### How to prove explicitly that by including Dirac fermions into the Einstein-Hilbert action we make torsion to be non-zero?

Recently I've heard the statement that by including Dirac fermions into the Einstein-Hilbert action we make torsion be non-zero, so that is one of problem of quantum gravity. How to prove that ...
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### Where do the quantum fields encode the spin information?

I know basically the difference between Klein-Gordon and Dirac field is spin. But I am not sure where we need to implement this info. The solutions of both equations are the wave packets which ...
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### Converting two component product to four component notation

Consider the product of two left Weyl spinors in the notation commonly found in supersymmetry, \chi ^\alpha\eta_\alpha = \chi ^\alpha \epsilon _{ \alpha \beta } \eta ^\beta \end{...
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### Gross-Neveu model analytic solution [closed]

I need to find an analytic solution via asymptotic expansion for the following system of equations: \begin{align} & i(u_t+u_x) + v = 0 \\ & i(v_t-v_x) + u = 0 \end{align} u(...
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### Dirac fermion in curved space

What is the connection between Dirac equation in curved space-time and effective Hamiltonian for Dirac fermion in curved space (topological insulators)? I am trying to find this connection but I am ...
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### Is it true that the Schrödinger equation only applies to spin-1/2 particles?

I recently came across a claim that the SchrÃ¶dinger equation only describes spin-1/2 particles. Is this true? I realize that the question may be ill-posed as some would consider the general ...
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### Time reversal operator symmetry of dirac lagrangian

I want to prove time reversal symmetry of Dirac Lagrangian, I have some problems with calculations. I start with \begin{eqnarray} T\psi T = U \psi \end{eqnarray} \begin{eqnarray} T\bar{\psi } T = ...
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### parity invariance of Einstein, Maxwell and Dirac Lagrangians

How can we show that Einstein, Maxwell and Dirac Lagrangians are parity invariant?
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### Kinetic energy operator in Dirac's relativistic quantum theory

In non-relativistic quantum theory $\hat{K}=\hat{p}^2/2m$, What is the Kinetic energy operator in Dirac's relativistic quantum theory?
### Showing Dirac equation's Lorentz invariance and use of unitary matrix $U$
Dirac equation is $i \hbar \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu \psi - m c \psi = 0$ To show its Lorentz invariance, we convert spacetime into $x'$ and $t'$ from $x$ and $t$ and then \$( iU^\dagger \gamma^\mu U\...
We know that Dirac equation is $$( i \partial _\mu \gamma ^\mu - m ) \psi ~=~0.$$ How can we show that Dirac equation is invariant under CPT transformation?