Tagged Questions

A conformal field theory (CFT) is a quantum field theory that is invariant under conformal transformations. In 2D, the infinite-dimensional algebra of local conformal transformations normally permits exact solution or classification of such theories. Further use for CFT applications to string theory,...

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How can one calculate the central term of the conformal field theory algebra (and show it's really the virasoro algebra)?

So I'm following Szabo's book "An Introduction to String Theory and D-brane Dynamics (2nd ed, 2011); still on the canonical treatment in chapter 3. After doing a mode expansion, we get (up to a ...
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BTZ Black Hole Central Charge and Conformal Weight

I have been trying to reproduce a calculation (equation 4.12) in this paper http://arxiv.org/pdf/1107.2678v1.pdf by Carlip reviewing the derivation of the effective central charge of the BTZ Black ...
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Why is string theory a two dimensional quantum (conformal) field theory on its worldsheet?

In string theory, we quantize the two dimensional field theory on the string's worldsheet. I have a question about this kind of quantization of string theory: did we have similar theory for point-like ...
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Anyons: Effect of braiding on fusion multiplicities

In the theory of non-abelian anyons, essential information is stored in the fusion multiplicities or Verlinde coefficients $N_{ab}^c$. Having the Pants Decomposition in mind, it is possible to use ...
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What uniquely defines a CFT?

So, I am quite new to CFT (and a as descriptive answer as possible would be appreciated). I want to know what uniquely defines a CFT in 2D and otherwise. Firstly in 2D, What defines a CFT? So I ...
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When does the correlator of a string of fields and the current vanish “sufficiently fast” at infinity and Ward's identity?

One consequence of the Ward identity (cf. Di Francesco et al) is that it means variation of correlators under infinitesimal transformation is zero. This can be seen by integrating the ward identity, ...
I'm reading Cardy's notes on CFT. He states the following in section 4.3: $$\hat L_n\left(\hat L_{-2}|\phi_j\rangle-(1/g)\hat{L^2}_{-1}|\phi_j\rangle\right)=0.$$ I tried to work this out explicitly ...