I have a conceptual difficulty in understanding the electron spin. On the one hand, it is an experimental, observable feature of electrons. The problem is in understanding to what it belongs - to a bare electron or to an electron already coupled to the electromagnetic field. I think it is the latter. In other words, the electron spin characterizes a complicated object (a real system) rather than a "free" (non interacting) electron. It is like the total spin of a compound system. On the other hand, in theory we ascribe it to a "bare" electron solely. Do you think we have a conceptual problem here?
|
closed as not constructive by mbq♦ Apr 29 '11 at 19:57
As it currently stands, this question is not a good fit for our Q&A format. We expect answers to be supported by facts, references, or specific expertise, but this question will likely solicit debate, arguments, polling, or extended discussion. If you feel that this question can be improved and possibly reopened, see the FAQ for guidance.
|
There is no conceptual problem. The bare electron field is a Dirac, spin-1/2 field, and so is the renormalized field. A bare electron carries $j=1/2$, and so does the physical, renormalized electron. In fact, because spin is a discrete quantum number, a continuous process such as renormalization (a process that depends either on a continuous coupling $e$ or the mass scale $\mu$) couldn't change the value of such a quantum number. So the equal value of both spins is not only free of contradictions; it is inevitable. |
|||
|
