# Relation between Gauss' law and Coulomb's law

In Coulomb's law if the relation was as if electric field intensity was to vary inversely $1/r$ with distance rather than the inverse $1/r^2$ of square of distance, would the Gauss's law still be valid? This was asked in our university tests and I'm clueless about it.

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Do you mean electric rather than magnetic field? –  BMS Dec 24 '13 at 6:22
Yes.sorry it was my mistake –  Devgeet Patel Dec 24 '13 at 7:53

No, this is not possible. It is only possible for $\mathbf{E}$ to be proportional to $\mathrm{r}^{-2}$.

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$$E_{tot}=(4\pi r^2)(k\frac{Q}{r})\propto Qr$$