Take the 2-minute tour ×
Physics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for active researchers, academics and students of physics. It's 100% free, no registration required.

If I consider one single Dirac electron in momentum representation, I use the wavefunction $u(p)e^{-ipx}$, however if I consider an one-particle state in the Fock space I use $|p\rangle$. Should it not be same?

Obviously the Dirac 1-particle wavefunction is a bispinor, and probably $|p\rangle$ is not a spinor. But could it not be spinor?

For a 2-particle wavefunction $|p,k\rangle$, I would use $$\frac{1}{\sqrt2}(u_1(p)u_2(k)e^{ipx_1+ikx_2} - u_2(k)u_1(p)e^{ipx_2 + ikx_1})$$ or something similar. I regret my limited way of expressing correctly. Certainly there is the problem if I consider instead of a half-spin particle a scalar particle, then I would have to build my multi-particles state out scalar wave function instead of spinor wave functions. May be my understanding of the Fock space is incomplete.

share|improve this question
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.