We normalize the wave function to $1$, but couldn't we also normalize it to $-i$ as $(-i)^2=1$?
Does this not work? Is it equivalent?
Normalizing $\psi$ to $1$ means that we ensure that
\int|\psi|^2dx = 1
normalizing it to $-i$ would presumably mean ensuring that
\int|\psi|^2dx = -i
which is impossible because the integrand $|\psi|^2$ is positive everywhere.
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1 year ago
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