In classical mechanics you construct an action (involving a Lagrangian in arbitrary generalized coordinates, a Hamiltonian in canonical coordinates [to make your EOM more "convenient & symmetric"]), then extremizing it gives the equations of motion. Alternatively one can find a first order PDE for the action as a function of it's endpoints to obtain the Hamilton-Jacobi equation, & the Poisson bracket formulation is merely a means of changing variables in your PDE so as to ensure your new variables are still characteristics of the H-J PDE (i.e. solutions of the EOM - see No. 37). All that makes sense to me, we're extremizing a functional to get the EOM or solving a PDE which implicitly assumes we've already got the solution (path of the particle) inside of the action that leads to the PDE. However in quantum mechanics, at least in the canonical quantization I think, you apparently just take the Hamiltonian (the Lagrangian in canonical coordinates) & mish-mash this with ideas from changing variables in the Hamilton-Jacobi equation representation of your problem so that you ensure the coordinates are characteristics of your Hamilton-Jacobi equation (i.e. the solutions of the EOM), then you put these ideas in some new space for some reason (Hilbert space) & have a theory of QM. Based on what I've written you are literally doing the exact same thing you do in classical mechanics in the beginning, you're sneaking in classical ideas & for some reason you make things into an algebra - I don't see why this is necessary, or why you can't do exactly what you do in classical mechanics??? Furthermore I think my questions have some merit when you note that Schrodinger's original derivation involved an action functional using the Hamilton-Jacobi equation. Again we see Schrodinger doing a similar thing to the modern idea's, here he's mish-mashing the Hamilton-Jacobi equation with extremizing an action functional instead of just extremizing the original Lagrangian or Hamiltonian, analogous to modern QM mish-mashing the Hamiltonian with changes of variables in the H-J PDE (via Poisson brackets).
What's going on in this big Jigsaw? Why do we need to start mixing up all our pieces, why can't we just copy classical mechanics exactly - we are on some level anyway, as far as I can see... I can understand doing these things if they are just convenient tricks, the way you could say that invoking the H-J PDE is just a trick for dealing with Lagrangians & Hamiltonians, but I'm pretty sure the claim is that the process of quantization simply must be done, one step is just absolutely necessary, you simply cannot follow the classical ideas, even though from what I've said we basically are just doing the classical thing - in a roundabout way. It probably has something to do with complex numbers, at least partially, as mentioned in the note on page 276 here, but I have no idea as to how to see that & Schrodinger's original derivation didn't assume them so I'm confused about this.
To make my questions about quantization explicit if they aren't apparent from what I've written above:
a) Why does one need to make an algebra out of mixing the Hamiltonian with Poisson brackets?
(Where this question stresses the interpretation of Hamiltonian's as Lagrangian's just with different coordinates, & Poisson brackets as conditions on changing variables in the Hamilton-Jacobi equation, so that we make the relationship to CM explicit)
b) Why can't quantum mechanics just be modelled by extremizing a Lagrangian, or solving a H-J PDE?
(From my explanation above it seems quantization smuggles these idea's into it's formalism anyway, just mish-mashing them together in some vector space)
c) How do complex numbers relate to this process?
(Are they the reason quantum mechanics radically differs from classical mechanics. If so, how does this fall out of the procedure as inevitable?)
Apologies if these weren't clear from what I've written, but I feel what I've written is absolutely essential to my question.
Edit: Parts b) & c) have been nicely answered, thus part a) is all that remains, & it's solution seems to lie in this article, which derives the time dependent Schrodinger equation (TDSE) from the TISE. In other words, the TISE is apparently derived from classical mechanical principles, as Schrodinger did it, then at some point in the complicated derivation from page 12 on the authors reach a point at which quantum mechanical assumptions become absolutely necessary, & apparently this is the reason one assumes tons of axioms & feels comfortable constructing Hilbert spaces etc... Thus elucidating how this derivation incontravertibly results in quantum mechanical assumptions should justify why quantization is necessary, but I cannot figure this out from my poorly-understood reading of the derivation. Understanding this is the key to QM apparently, unless I'm mistaken (highly probable) thus if anyone can provide an answer in light of this articles contents that would be fantastic, thank you!