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Can classical mechanics be derived from quantum mechanics as the same way thermodynamics derived from statistical mechanics?

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marked as duplicate by Dilaton, Qmechanic Aug 16 '13 at 12:00

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

Possible duplicates: physics.stackexchange.com/q/65964/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/17651/2451 and links therein. –  Qmechanic Aug 16 '13 at 8:31
I guess check "Ehrenfest theorem" on wikipedia. As a side note, I'm always an advocate of making people cautious to not merely view thermodynamics as that what you get when you view statistical mechanics on a broader scale, but as a theory on it's own. Certain expression from the detailed theory can be interpreted in a way so that they fulfill the thermodynamical axioms and so the macroscopic structure sits on the surface of the microscopic one. But as far as I'm concerned, the theory of thermodynamics doesn't even have to be used for only describing situations in physics. –  NikolajK Aug 16 '13 at 9:02