Take the 2-minute tour ×
Physics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for active researchers, academics and students of physics. It's 100% free, no registration required.

If time is discrete, such as the Planck's length, would the transition from one frame of time to the next explain why it appears matter changes from a particle to a wave? During that infinitely small space between each frame we can not measure the particle and it appears as a wave?

share|improve this question
1  
your phrasing implies that the wavelength of the "wave" you suppose would be on the Planck scale. Data tells otherwise. Look at this electron interference pattern hitachi.com/rd/portal/research/em/doubleslit-f2.html . the planck length is of order 10^_35 meters, way off the scale of the pattern's scale en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planck_sc.ale –  anna v Aug 5 '13 at 19:19
    
Ok point taken, but what I was trying to imply was that in between time frames particles appear as waves. Only because there is no discreet space/time. –  Douglas Alan Aug 8 '13 at 7:16
    
If time is discrete, then I don't see why time or motion should be called infinitely small. You can only judge about a distance between two frames if you have a metric e.g. given by an underlying smooth structure. –  NikolajK Aug 8 '13 at 7:23
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.