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Is the result of an experiment on acceleration equivalent to another experiment in a gravitational field?

If I have an experimental conclusion from research under uniform acceleration, can the conclusion be extended to apply to gravity too?

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Comment to the question (v2): One difference is that gravity in general produces tidal forces, while (linear) acceleration doesn't. –  Qmechanic May 26 '13 at 13:06
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@Qmechanic: This version of the equivalence principle is local. Tidal effects are nonlocal in the sense that when you restrict to a region of size $L$, they vanish like a higher power of $L$ than the effect of gravity itself. Similar considerations apply to curvature, which is not equivalent to an acceleration of a flat spacetime. –  Ben Crowell May 26 '13 at 16:07
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@Qmechanic well.... if I'm on a centripetal station in orbit, i Do experience tidal effects in a sense, because the force is not exactly the same everywhere near me. There is also some dependence of speed, which is not present on gravity forces, that I'm aware –  lurscher Jul 5 '13 at 17:47
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Well, one statement of the equivalence principle is that acceleration in the absence of gravity cannot, with any experiment, be distinguished from remaining at rest in a gravitational field.

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