Assuming charge quantisation and semiclassical gravity, would the absence of magnetically charged black holes lead to a violation of locality, or some other inconsistency? If so, how?
(I am not asking about how magnetic monopoles explain charge quantisation.)
I am looking to fill in the blanks in the claims found in this answer to "Is it possible to separate the poles of a magnet?" according to which "magnetic monopoles certainly exist [assuming] charge is quantized. This follows only from the semiclassical behavior of black hole decay, and so does not require unknown physics ... you can't forbid them, at least not for macroscopically sized black holes, without ruining the theory [of General Relativity]."
Related claims are found in this answer to "Why do physicists believe that there exist magnetic monopoles?" according to which, if a black hole cannot carry magnetic charge, it would result in a "violation of the laws of locality". (This refers to "any consistent theory of quantum gravity", which may or may not require more assumptions than the other claim.)