Here are 2 doubts:
If we change the sign of the mass term in the free massive KG Lagrangian to get:
$L = \frac{1}{2}\partial^\mu\phi\partial_\mu\phi + \frac{1}{2}m^2\phi^2$,
What would be the $physical$ implications of this change? (aside from on shell condition not being satisfied)?
Let $\phi^{(1)}$ and $\phi^{(2)}$ be 2 real scalar fields with the Lagrangian:
$L = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{i}\partial^\mu\phi^{(i)}\partial_\mu\phi^{(i)} - \frac{1}{2}m^2 \sum_{i,j,k} \phi^{(i)} M_{ij}M_{jk} \phi^{(k)}$ .
where $M_{11} = \lambda$, $M_{12} = 1$, $M_{21} = 1$, $M_{22} = 0$ AND $\lambda >> 1$.
What is the mass ratio of the 2 particles in the theory?
EDIT: As for the 2nd question, I found that $L$ should simplify to $\frac{1}{2}\sum_{i}\partial^\mu\phi^{(i)}\partial_\mu\phi^{(i)} - \frac{1}{2} m^2(\lambda \phi^{(1)} + \phi^{(2)})^2$. I tried continuing from the viewpoint that we can consider the superposition $\phi^{(3)} = \lambda \phi^{(1)} + \phi^{(2)}$ and try to eliminate cross-terms, thereby getting a simple sum of non-interacting Lagrangians, but that didn't work. (Now I'm out of my depths)
Thanks in advance