Physics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for active researchers, academics and students of physics. It's 100% free.

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

Here in this picture

http://de.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Datei:Skineffect_reason.svg&filetimestamp=20080727190721

you can see I_W which is induced by H. But why I_W is not vice versa? Because of $$rot \, \vec B = \mu_0 \, \left( \varepsilon_0 \frac{\partial E}{\partial t} + \vec j \right)$$ ? Maybe I have to use $$\oint E \, dr = - \int \frac{\partial B}{\partial t} \, dA = U_{induced}$$

share|cite|improve this question
    
I'm a little unclear what you are asking. Do you want to know why the current is induced by the H field, rather than the H field being induced by the current Iw ? – Colin K Feb 21 '11 at 20:20
    
@Colin K Hi! I want to know where Iw comes from? – kame Feb 21 '11 at 20:32
1  
The eddy currents are determined by the second equation you listed. – Johannes Feb 22 '11 at 2:05
    
Okay I understand now. Because dB/dt in the Iw-Area will increase, there must be a E-field which goes anti-clockwise. (How can I mark the solution?) – kame Feb 24 '11 at 16:14
    
@kame: Write your solution as an answer and then mark it as the accepted solution. You can answer your own questions. – endolith Dec 5 '11 at 3:04

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.