$\newcommand{\ket}[1]{\left| {#1} \right> }$ I have no academic background in physics, but I'm attempting to study quantum computation.
I have read that a quantum system of two qubits is represented by normalized combinations of the basis $\left\{ \ket{00},\ket{01},\ket{10},\ket{11} \right\} $. A measurement was defined only for a single qubit of the two - that is, a state represented by $\ket{0}\otimes(a\ket{0}+b\ket{1})+\ket{1}\otimes(c\ket{0}+d\ket{1})$ can have its first qubit measured and collapse to either $\ket{0}\otimes(a\ket{0}+b\ket{1})$ or $\ket{1}\otimes(c\ket{0}+d\ket{1})$ with the appropriate probabilities, and a similar thing can be done to the second qubit.
The paper did say that the are other kinds of measurement, such as comparing the two qubits, but they are all equivalent to performing this type of measurement after a unitary transformation. From this I infer that the general representation of measurement is taken by splitting a basis $\mathcal{B}$ into two new bases $\mathcal{B}_1, \mathcal{B}_2$ of equal sizes, and then the state collapses to its projection to either $\mathcal{B}_1$ or $\mathcal{B}_2$ with appropriate probabilities.
What I don't understand is why do $\mathcal{B}_1$ and $\mathcal{B}_2$ have to be of equal sizes - for example, would it be possible for me to measure a system $a\ket{00}+b\ket{01}+c\ket{10}+d\ket{11}$ with the bases $\left\{\ket{00}\right\},\left\{\ket{01},\ket{10},\ket{11}\right\}$, so that it will collapse to $\ket{00}$ with probability $|a|^2$ and to $b\ket{01}+c\ket{10}+d\ket{11}$ with probability $|b|^2+|c|^2+|d|^2$?
If not, is there an explanation (for a non-physicist) as to why this is?
Thanks in advance.