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In this page I want to know, why the equation (1.32) introduced creation and annihilation operator. Please elaborate.

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closed as not a real question by user1504, Manishearth Apr 10 '13 at 16:18

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, visit the help center.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

The link doesn't seem to work properly. – Qmechanic Mar 1 '13 at 12:02
up vote 2 down vote accepted

I don't really understand what's confusing you here? As far as I can see, it's just a basic procedure when you want to quantize something in qft.

You introduce creation and annihilation operators, set their respective algebra (1.31), and you have the basic set of rules you can work with.

I don't really know what that issue you are working on is about, but it's like when you want to quantize a harmonic oscillator...

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I wanted to ask that, why did they add creation and annihilation operator with the Hamiltonian? – Unlimited Dreamer Feb 16 '13 at 18:31
Well by redefining the system with the creation and annihilation operator, you get to work with operators, so this is just the application of these rules on the above equation. See for instance this: I really don't see the real issue here (or I am not understanding what's troubling you :( ) – dingo_d Feb 16 '13 at 18:48

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