# Ising Ferromagnet: Spontaneous symmetry breaking or not?

In explaining/introducing second-order phase transition using Ising system as an example, it is shown via mean-field theory that there are two magnetized phases below the critical temperature. This derivation is done for zero external magnetic field $B=0$ and termed spontaneous symmetry breaking The magnetic field is then called the symmetry breaking field. But, if the symmetry breaking occurs "spontaneously" at zero external field why do we need to call the external magnetic field the symmetry breaking field? I am confused by the terminology.

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