Physics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for active researchers, academics and students of physics. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

This was posted on here in someone's Phys.SE answer:

No, in the many worlds interpretation, every parallel universe is real, but in consistent histories, once you choose your projection operators, only one possibility is real, and all the others are imaginary. This makes consistent histories a lot more like Bohmian mechanics with the world the Bohmian particle sits in being more real than the rest. Why should one world be more real than the others? There is no reason. T[w]o copies of you living in a parallel world, they are more real than you are.

If as he says, each copy of you believes they are more real than the other, is he saying CH and BM are many worlds in disguise? or is there no copies of you in CH and BM?

share|cite|improve this question
The [w] is misleading. he/she means that : for a copy of you living in a parallel world he/she is more real, than you. Each parallel world copy thinks itself is the real one. – anna v Jan 15 '13 at 20:52

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.