The Lagrangian $\mathcal L = -\frac14 F^{\mu\nu} F_{\mu\nu}$ with $F_{\mu\nu} = \partial_\mu A_\nu - \partial_\nu A_\mu$ results in the four-potential's equation of motion
$$ \underbrace{\partial^\mu \partial_\mu}_{\equiv \square} A^\nu - \partial^\nu\partial_\mu A^\mu = 0\quad(1)$$
which for the Lorentz-gauge $\partial_\mu A^\mu=0$ yields the classical wave equation
$$ \square A^\nu = 0\quad(2)$$
Since $\square = -\hat P^2$ the Lorentz-gauged field must be massless field due to Wigner's Classification. However Physics should be gauge-invariant, while the additional degree of freedom of a gauge transformation $A^\mu \to A^\mu + \partial^\mu\phi$ allows for an arbitrary scalar gauge field for which $(1)$ does not imply any restriction on $\square\partial^\mu\phi$. Especially, $\square\partial^\mu\phi = -m^2\partial^\mu\phi$, i.e. a massive gauge boson, seems possible, rendering the vector field itself massive. While there is no physical interaction, this still seems quite odd, so how can this be fixed?
