I'm reviewing page 59 of the QFT notes here and am a little confused by a reference frame argument. You can compute the second order probability amplitude term for nucleon-nucleon scattering to be
$$-ig^2\left[\frac{1}{(p_1-p_1')^2-m^2+i\epsilon}+\frac{1}{(p_1-p_2')^2-m^2+i\epsilon}\right](2\pi)^4\delta(p_1+p_2-p_1'-p_2')$$
in a scalar field theory approximation. Now the author argues that we may remove the $i\epsilon$ terms by moving to the centre of mass frame.
Here he says that $p_1=-p_2$ in this frame and that $|\vec{p_1}|=|\vec{p_1'}|$ by conservation of momentum. He continues to claim that the four-momentum of the meson is hence $k=(0,\vec{p}-\vec{p'})$ so $k^2<0$. Quite what $p,p'$ are I don't know exactly.
I don't understand this argument at all. Surely in the centre of mass frame, the sum of all momenta $p_i$ and $p_i'$ is zero (.)? Also where has the second constraint come from? I don't see how morally you could get more than my claim (.).
Could someone explain this argument to me? Very many thanks in advance.