# Yang Mills Hamiltonian: why do we use the Weyl's temporal gauge?

Do you know why in the quantization of SU(2) Yang Mills Gauge Theory, it is always chosen the Weyl (temporal) gauge to derive the Hamiltonian?

Is it possible to fix another gauge?

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@Oaoa no, this is not a duplicate because this question asks more specifically about the case of SU(2) Yang Mills Gauge Theory, whereas the other question asks generally about gauge fixing. The closevote is therefor not justified, it is a very good question: Leave open – Dilaton Jul 24 '13 at 10:55

Formally, the gauge-invariant observables do not depend on the choice of gauge-fixing condition (such as, e.g., Lorenz gauge, Coulomb gauge, axial gauge, temporal gauge, etc). Similarly, the Hamiltonian can formally be gauge-fixed in any gauge.

However, it is my understanding that to avoid the Gribov problem, an algebraic (rather than a differential) gauge-fixing condition is preferred. See also the footnote on p. 15 in S. Weinberg, Quantum Theory of Fields, Vol 2.

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