my question concerns the kinematics of 2 to 2 particle scattering. I refer to Peskin and Schroeder eq.17.59 going from this expression
$\frac{d^3\sigma}{dy_3dy_4dp_T}=x_1f_1(x_1)x_2f_2(x_2)\;2p_T\frac{d\sigma}{d\hat{t}}(1+2\to3+4)$
to this
$\frac{d^4\sigma}{dy_3dy_4d^2p_T}=x_1f_1(x_1)x_2f_2(x_2)\;\frac{1}{\pi}\frac{d\sigma}{d\hat{t}}(1+2\to3+4)$
He uses $2\pi\,p_T\,dp_T=d^2p_T$ but I fail to see how that is true?
Thank you for your insight!