# Why is the spinor wave function of graphene what it is?

Why is the spinor wave function of graphene $[e^{-i\theta/2}, e^{i\theta/2}]$? Could it be $[e^{-i\theta/}, 1]$?

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Note that both quantum states are equal up to a global phase factor which has no physical meaning. –  DaniH Nov 7 '12 at 18:56

## 1 Answer

Yes.

The first choice is (surprisingly) preferred by many authors, probably due to closer analogy with true spin in 3D, but actually there is no difference in 2D and sometimes the second choice is better.

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