Take the 2-minute tour ×
Physics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for active researchers, academics and students of physics. It's 100% free.

Why is the spinor wave function of graphene $[e^{-i\theta/2}, e^{i\theta/2}]$? Could it be $[e^{-i\theta/}, 1]$?

share|improve this question
Note that both quantum states are equal up to a global phase factor which has no physical meaning. –  DaniH Nov 7 '12 at 18:56

1 Answer 1


The first choice is (surprisingly) preferred by many authors, probably due to closer analogy with true spin in 3D, but actually there is no difference in 2D and sometimes the second choice is better.

share|improve this answer

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.